Originally Posted by jhawkkw
You certainly use infinity in math, it's one of the entire foundations of Calculus. The ability to take limits as a variable goes to positive or negative infinity is a subject that comes up in multiple topics such as horizontal asymptotes, anti-derivatives/integrals, improper integrals, and sums of infinite series. For the record, I am a college mathematics professor who teaches these topics in Calculus I & II. I never claimed to be good with taxes, just with mathematical theory. I noticed that people picked apart my algebraic proof with skepticism, but flat out ignored my proof through analysis most likely because very few ever take 4th year mathematics courses when single variable calculus is considered to be first year. As promised, I am going to provide the proof that anyone who has taken calculus II could do by use of the Geometric Series. Just so people don't think I pull formulas out of thin air, I'm actually going to use a formula in this proof that you can look up in any calculus textbook, and I will even cite one, James Stewart's Calculus Early Transcendentals 5th Edition(ISBN:0-534-39321-7). Because the proof requires the use of symbols not easily typed, I have hand written it and attached it to this. Hopefully this will be much more convincing.
Thanks for posting that. I know that infinity is used in maths. I think you're missing my point. I did not say your maths was wrong. I said maths in general is wrong. I am completely comfortable arguing this with a college mathematics professor. In fact, thats all the more poignant.
1 is 1. .9999' is not 1. I am using ' as the symbol for recurring as there isn't one.
We cannot use infinity to prove something that is not 1 is actually 1. Infinity is not a number. It is s concept. Recurring numbers do not actually exist. If I have 9 cakes, I can share them between 3 people equally. If I have 2 people, cutting the cake is possible. If I have 10 cakes and 3 people, cutting the cake wont work. It is physically not possible.
Recurring numbers exist so from a mathematical stand point, it is possible when in reality we know the contrary to be true.
So now we have a series of equations that attempt to prove .9999' is equal to 1. The mathematics behind it stands up. My point is, that is irrelevant. Using a non-existant number in an equation to prove that something that really exists is in fact something else, wont wash.
Mathematics is hugely flawed and even the greatest mathematical minds of our time still do not understand it fully. We know 1 is 1. We know .9999' is not 1. We cannot use mathematical flaws (the use of things that cannot exist) to prove otherwise. If all it is doing is "proving" that the opposite of reality is true (incorrectly) then it's use of proving anything lessens significantly. Its credibility is lost.
So you see, its not me against you. Its reality against maths. .9999' is the closest you can get in maths to 1 without being 1 and no amount of mathematical loop holes will change that.
Maths exists in reality and has its uses in everyday life. I do not deny. How else will I share cakes fairly or count in binary?! However as infinity is a concept and not a reality, regardless as to whether we can use it to show something that doesn't exist is the same as something that does exist, doesn't make it conclusive or even correct. You can only use existing numbers in reality to prove conclusively, which I've already shown proves the opposite and that my good man, is my point.