Originally Posted by Rxpert83
Its not a known number because you implied the 0s repeated for infinity and then ended in 1. An infinite number doesn't end.
But this whole conversation is about how .999...=1
No because you assume in this that 0.9999... = 1 which it doesn't. If 0.9999... = 1 and the problem is set out to either prove or disprove that, you cannot make the assumption within the problem. It must be the outcome.
Its like using the word you are defining in definition.
Even though Wikipedia says .9999... is 1, its not